I have a question considering Financial markets in discrete Time:
One of the main theorems in discrete time is:
In finite discrete Time with trading times t={1,...,T} the following are equivallent:
1.)The market $(S,\mathbb{F})$ is complete, i.e every $F_T$-measurable random variable $U$ is replicable
and
2.)there is exactly one equivalent martingale measure.
Now I seem to come to a contradiction if I define the following frame work (shortly: Black scholes in discrete time):
Lets assume we are in the Black-Scholes framework but we consider the model as discrete time model with (simplifying heavily) two trading dates $t=0$ and $t=1$. The (discounted) Stock price ist denoted by $S_t$. $S_0$ is constant and for T=1 $$S_T=exp((\mu-r-1/2\sigma^2)T-\sigma W_t).$$ The Filtration $\mathbb{F}=(F_t)_{t=0,1}$ is the natrual one.
It is clear that in this frame work there is exactly one equivalent martingale measure, namely the one in whick $\mu=r$. Applying the theorem from above a call-option on that stock S should be replicable (in only one! trading day, namely from t=0 to T=1)
Now this seems to me very doubtfull and I dont really know where the Problem is.... ANY HELP IS WELCOME!!!!