Take the 2-minute tour ×
Quantitative Finance Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for finance professionals and academics. It's 100% free, no registration required.

I think there should be an obvious connection of the two implied vol curves from the SPX and SPY markets since the underlying of SPX is SP500, while the underlying of SPY is a ETF which tracks sp500 index

A very simple idea would be : with the same expiration date (while one is AM and the other one is PM), for the strike at the same log moneyness, i.e. $\log(\frac{K}{F})$, I assume the vol should be the same.

Anyone has any suggestions?

Motivation: SPY is a much tighter market, if I know the vol curve of SPY, and I can somehow convert the vol of SPY to the vol of SPX, then I would claim I get a more accurate vol curve for SPX.

share|improve this question
    
You seriously could have taken a bit more time writing the question with decent formatting and grammar. –  SRKX Feb 10 '12 at 15:43
1  
They will be about the same but beware of the differing borrow rates. –  Brian B Feb 10 '12 at 15:59
1  
being new here. I'll rewrite the question. Thanks for your advice. –  DeepRed Feb 10 '12 at 16:03
    
Hi Brian, thanks for your comment. You mean I should use different interest rates here? What I am doing now is: I get the interest rate from Eurodollar future, and use it for both market. But I use dividend yield for SPX, while make assumptions on the discrete cash dividend for SPY. –  DeepRed Feb 10 '12 at 16:11
    
The differences will be driven by technical details in the differences between the two markets, such as interest rates and dividend yields. Not a very interesting quant question, more of an annoying practical trading problem, kinda like the headache that is adjusting for day count conventions in fixed income. –  Tal Fishman Feb 10 '12 at 16:41
show 1 more comment

1 Answer

They'll be correlated, and generally close to one another, but rarely identical. In fact differences of 2 points in implied vol are common.

The reason for the differences comes down to the portfolio construction and tracking error of the SPY ETF. While generally quite low over a long period of time, the tracking error on a 1-day or less basis can be noticeable. Even though SPY is designed to track SPX, you can look at the SPY prospectus to see that the weights are slightly different. (They don't say it explicitly, but they're most likely not trading all 500 stocks). This is another source of differences in implied vol.

share|improve this answer
    
Thanks glyphard. I understand there is no exact math solution to this practical problem. As a practitioner, I should be familiar with these markets in detail. Your comment is helpful. Thanks. –  DeepRed Feb 14 '12 at 19:46
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.