Brealey & Myers provide a certainty-equivalent version of the present value rule, using CAPM, as follows:
$$PV_0=\frac{C_1 - \lambda_m *cov(C_1, r_m)}{1 + r_f}$$
$PV_0$ - Present Value of cash flow 1 at time 0.
$\lambda_m$ - Market price of risk = $\frac{r_m-r_f}{\sigma_m^2}$
$cov(C_1, r_m)$ - Covariance of the cash flow at time 1 with the return on the market.
I want to create an n-factor version of this same model. However, using Fama French 3-factor model as an example, the following doesn't seem to work on a toy example I've set up:
$$PV_0=\frac{C_1 - \lambda_m *cov(C_1, r_m)- \lambda_{smb} *cov(C_1, r_{smb})- \lambda_{hml} *cov(C_1, r_{hml})}{1 + r_f}$$
$\lambda_m$ = $\frac{r_m-r_f}{\sigma_m^2}$
$\lambda_{smb}$ = $\frac{r_s-r_b}{\sigma_{smb}^2}$
$\lambda_{hml}$ = $\frac{r_h-r_l}{\sigma_{hml}^2}$
Question: what am I doing wrong? Is there some way I need to adjust for the covariance amongst the factors?
===Update===
In checking my toy example again, I realized that I might in fact have the right formula above. So points/checkmarks to anyone who can either prove the above right or wrong or provide a citation to the more general form:
$$PV_0=\frac{C_1 - \displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^n\lambda_i *cov(C_1, r_i)}{1 + r_f}$$
for orthogonal risk factors $i_1,i_2,\dotsc,i_n$.