There are several reasons:
Expected payoff = 0
I don't know why you selected 0.5 ATR and 2 ATR away from the market but let's go with it for a while. This means that you want to gain 2x while risking only 0.5x. For now let's assume that FX log-returns are normal.
To bring it to a higher level, we can use a piece of Black Scholes formula, namely the probability that an option ends up in the money is N(d$_{2}$) where N(*) is a cumulative normal distribution of a function and d2 is a function defined as in BS. So your expected payoff is E[payoff] = 2*N(d$_{2}$(2)) - 0.5*N(d$_{2}$(0.5)) which equals 0 if you do the calculation. This explains why you don't make money, not why in reality you lose money. Read on.
Returns are not normally distributed
In general, normal distribution is not a good representation of FX (or other) log-returns. The real distribution of returns has fat tails, often skewness, prices have jumps etc. If the assumption of normality is rejected, your model breaks down.
Transaction costs
As edouard mentioned, even if your E[payoff] = 0, you would incur transaction costs (through slippage, fees, bid/ask spread etc.) which would make your E[payoff] < 0.
Hope it helps.