Often in a quant process, one will generate a time series of return forecasts and use them in some sort of optimization to generate a portfolio. Generally, there will be a covariance matrix of market returns used in the optimization. I haven't seen any attention ever placed on the covariance of the return forecasts themselves, however. Since we could easily adjust the covariance of the forecasts to anything we'd like via: $$\textrm{forecasts}_{\textrm{new}} = \Omega_{\textrm{new}} R_{\textrm{new}}^{1/2} R_{\textrm{old}}^{-1/2} \Omega_{\textrm{old}}^{-1} \textrm{forecasts}_{\textrm{old}}$$ where $\Omega$ are diagonal matrices of volatilities and $R$ are correlation matrices. I'm wondering if there is some optimal $\Omega_{new}$ and $R_{new}$ one would want to use, or if a transformation such as this would provably not matter?
I wouldn't necessarily expect, for example, that the covariance of the raw return forecasts would be a good forecaster of the covariance of market returns, so another way of putting this question is, should we "fix" the covariance of forecasts in some way? If one had the true future covariance of market returns, for example, wouldn't we want to impose that, and by extension, wouldn't we want to use whatever our forecasted covariance to be? I have not been able to derive a proof or find a reference that it is good or inconsequential to do any such transform.