I have a question about the cost process of a trading strategy. Suppose we work in the finite discrete case and holding just one risky asset for simplicity. Let $\phi=(\theta,\eta)$, where $\theta$ should be predictable and models the amount of shares and $\eta$ models the bank account. Then the cost occuring over $k$ to $k+1$ are (working with discounted objects.)
$$\Delta C_{k+1}=C_{k+1}-C_k=(\theta_{k+1}-\theta_k)S_k + (\eta_{k+1}-\eta_{k})$$
Where $S_k$ is the price of the risky asset at time $k$. Now I have a very simple question. If $\Delta C_{k+1}\le 0$, i.e. the costs over this time are negativ, does this mean, I gain something? What would this mean in reality? The bank/broker would give some money for buying/selling my risky asset or borrow/pay back money to the bank?
thanks for your help