Quantitative Finance Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for finance professionals and academics. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top


Previously, I assumed "Inst. Owned" meant the percentage of the company's stock that was owned by the company (viz. not floated), then I started to believe it meant the percentage of the stock which was owned by institutional investors. I still believe/assume that, but now I see AOL is 103% "Inst. Own", which carries me to the temporary assumption that AOL is being shorted right now?

share|improve this question
You know, when you hover your cursor over "Inst. own" on Google Finance, a box will appear that reads, "The percentage of shares outstanding held by institutional investors such as pension plans." Speaking of Google, a quick search for the generic form of your question brings up lots of suggestions, all of which zero-in on short-selling. – chrisaycock Nov 19 '12 at 3:58

'Inst. Owned' almost surely means "Institutionally Owned".

With respect to the 103% ownership reported:

  1. Discrepancies caused by varying time lags in reporting ownership may skew the results

  2. Second, and perhaps most likely, is due to short selling. I might own 100 shares, lend them to Bill, and Bill might sell (short) the stock to Nancy. In this case both I and Nancy might report owning 100 shares.

share|improve this answer

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.