I'm studying math and attend this semester a course about interest rates. Now, some questions show up how exactly things are working in the real world.
My examples will be about interest rates model, but I guess there is no need to restrict ourselves to this case.
When you want to price for example bond prices, you will do the following:
- modelling
- pricing
- calibration
Let's assume there is an equivalent martingale measure $Q$ such that all the bond prices are martingales. The density $\frac{dQ}{dP}$ is of a Girsanov type. Concerning the above list, I would start by choosing a model for my interest rate, i.e. I would directly write down the $Q$ dynamics of $r$. For simplicity assume $r$ has the following dynamics:
$$dr(t)=(b+\beta r(t))dt + \sigma dW^*(t)$$
where $b,\beta,\sigma$ are parameters and $W^*$ is one dimensional $Q$-Brownian motion.
For the second point I would start pricing using the usual formula
$$ \pi(t,T) = E_Q[\exp{(-\int_t^Tr(u) du)}|\mathcal{F}_t]$$
where $\pi(t,T)$ denotes the bond prices at $t$ with maturity $T$. Since in this case $r(t)$ is normal distributed I can perfectly calculate the prices dependent on the parameters $b,\beta,\sigma$.
Now the questions show up in the last point, i.e. in 3. Here I want to choose my parameters in such a way, that the computed prices match with the market prices. So far I was just working with the risk-neutral measure $Q$. Do I really compare the, under $Q$, estimated prices with the market prices? Or how exactly does this calibration work in reality?
Thanks in advance for your help.