i just don't get it.
Peak-load pricing wiki page gives example:
in public goods such as public urban transportation, where day demand (peak period) is usually much higher than night demand (off-peak period)
Price discrimination wiki page gives example:
For example, schedule-sensitive business passengers who are willing to pay \$300 for a seat from city A to city B cannot purchase a \$150 ticket because the \$150 booking class contains a requirement for a Saturday night stay, or a 15-day advance purchase, or another fare rule that discourages, minimizes, or effectively prevents a sale to business passengers.
But I don't really see the difference.
In the example of urban transportation, people pay more to buy the convenience of "peak period usage"; while in the other example of air tickets, people pay more to buy the convenience of "returning without spending a Saturday night stay" (so that they could enjoy quality time with family) or "without 15-day advance purchase" (so that they need not spend time planning the detailed, maybe even trifle things that might happen in the future).
For example, a company might hire a secretary to book tickets in 15-days' advance, while need to pay the secretary; or, just buy air tickets when needed, while need to pay the premium of convenience.
that convenience is really a need, why shall government bother?