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Summing the PVs of the cash flows, I get 3552. I'm going to guess that your equation assumes the first payment comes at the end of the first period, not at the start of it. For this setup, that would put the "start" date of the instrument at t=3. Personally, I would just discount all the cash flows back to today, rather than once to a forward date and then ...


You can try for example it is free, for the other ones you mentioned you have to pay, usually a lot.


Surely you have to keep $150 in your account against the short sale, all of which you lose on the close out.

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