Tag Info

Hot answers tagged

2

Time is expressed in fractions of year in the GBM formula. Therefore, $T=1$ year and $\Delta t = 1/m$. Considered that you have $253$ observations, I would use $m = 253$, so the second option as Drew suggested. In general, using 253 or 365 days in a year depends on how you consider reality: do you think that when markets are closed (i.e. weekends) the price ...


2

The second one will be the best estimate. Also, a smaller timestep usually corresponds to a smaller bias. But I agree, the answer is not obvious. You should be careful about increasing $T$ though, because for negative drifts there is a threshold value ($2\mu + \sigma^2 < 0$) beyond which the variance of the price process stops increasing. It's an ...


2

I would suggest you to add spreads to the implied hazard rates, spreads that you regress on the macroeconomic factors. Then you stress by calculating the spreads corresponding to the stressed factors.


2

Here is how I would approach such a calibration. Assuming we have the necessary market data one can easily construct the emprical distribution of the arrival rate. Let $\lambda_{emp}(\delta)$ be the empirical distribution. Then one can define a metric by $$ m(k,A,N)=\sum_{i=1}^N |\lambda_{emp}(i)-\lambda^a(i)| $$ After you have decided upon a suitable ...


2

At long maturities, the real problem tends more to be model error than volatility estimation: over that kind of time period most companies undergo significant capital structure changes, for which there are very few models.


1

Thanks to my research leader, I found what I missed. $V_{0,1}$ is vol of swaption that matures at $T_0$ which is not 0 (as I thought), rather it is maturity of the first libor. So $V_{0,1}$ is the closest available point on market. And now this is all clear with table on page 323 in section 7.4. $V_{0,2}$ is realy vol of swaption that matures at $T_0$=1y ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible