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7

Well, it takes a little more information than you've provided, but here are links to a pdf and associated excel spreadsheet that should help you answer your question.


5

The major difference is that the equity option embedded in a convertible bond is not detachable from the convert, so that you have to value the bond and the embedded option together. If you want to make a direct comparison with a detachable warrant, you can think of the the embedded option in a convertible bond as having a strike price equal to the value of ...


3

Tangurena's answer and links give the right idea. You can get a rough approximation by finding the conversion price $K$ and using that $K$ as the strike in a standard Black-Scholes option pricer. In practice, most people work with 3rd party models such as the ones built into Bloomberg, Monis, or Kynex.


3

Use the USD rate. The actual tricky bit is in the volatility. Normally for a cross currency bond you would use the volatility of the foreign shares as denominated in US currency. However, the fixed FX rate in this case means that the correct volatility to use is the volatility in INR.


2

The answer is, that it does not matter. Choose one currency as the numeraire, and stick to it. This is because of the foreign exchange interest rate carry arbitrage relationship. If that relationship doesn't hold, skip the bond and lock-in the arbitrage on the interest rate differential embedded in the USD/INR exchange rate.


2

I can't answer your question about the data, since my sources for data like that are Reuters and Bloomberg, neither of which are cheap. For testing trading strategies, I'll separate them into three camps. For 'simple' optimization schemes, RMetrics fPortfolio can likely do the trick. This would be for weight-based asset allocation. RMetrics also has some ...


2

Both statements are correct. A warrant allows a holder to BUY a stock at a set price. Because there is a specific price, all that is needed is CASH to get the stock. As such, the warrant can be separated from the bond, and someone else could use it. As a result, it is valued separately from an accounting perspective. A convertible bond, on the other hand, ...


1

You are mixing terms here. The definition of an "interest rate" is typically a simple interest rate as applies to the Principal of a loan. The unpaid interest rate is not compounded. This is owed at the conclusion of the loan or when converted to debt. Typically rolled into the equity stake. The definition of "discount" is what the convertible debt holder ...


1

If there is no chance of default, and you have an extremely simple set of terms and conditions (T&C) on the bond, then the two are equivalent. In the real world T&C are complex for all bonds currently traded, and default is important. Therefore something closer to the binomial model, which allows the embedded option to disappear in the event of ...


1

Andrew Lo has an analysis documenting the performance of Convertible Bond strategies (see page 13 here). His purpose is to see whether various hedge fund strategies can be replicated by a portfolio of tradeable risk assets. His sample period his 1986-2005.



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