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3

It's probably easiest to think about it in terms of a covariance matrix and then convert it to a correlation matrix after. If instead of the first matrix you have some covariance matrix of the assets $\Sigma$, then you could get the portfolio variance, for one portfolio, as $w' \Sigma w$, where you could have $w\equiv\left(w_{1},w_{2},w_{3}\right)'$. ...

2

Let $t$ be the number of days (time periods), and let $p$ be the number of assets. You have $t=1000$ and $p=10000$. For any given dataset, it is assumed that the sample covariance matrix $\mathbf{C}$ accurately represents the population covariance matrix $\boldsymbol{\Sigma}$, however, as $p \rightarrow t$ or if $p > t$ (as in your case), the ...

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I think that your problem can be solves by using another estimator for your covariance matrix. A so called shrinkage estimator leads to covariance matrix that is non-singular. Then a Cholesky decomposition should work (maybe there is even a short-cut in the shrinkage world, I will check alter on). The R package corpcor contains functions to perform ...

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There is a wide knowledge on correlation estimation, see other questions and answers: principal component analysis (PCA) - Equity Risk Model Using PCA random matrix theory (RMT) - Cleansing covariance matrices via Random matrix theory or Random matrix theory (RMT) in finance shrinkage - Portfolio Optimization : Shrinkage of Covariance Matrix when data is ...

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You can use the either, as both necessarily are symmetric positive definite; covariance is a personal preference. It's really just a matter of scaling, as $\mathcal{N}(0,\Sigma)$ is distributionally $\sqrt{\Sigma} \mathcal{N}(0,1)$. Correlation would require additional scaling (i.e. multiplication of every $\mathcal{N}(0,\rho)$ element by its respective ...

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