# Tag Info

6

Today (1 day after the fact) the following headline appeared in the Financial Times: "September Fed rate lift-off put in doubt, Fallout from China’s currency move turns market mood". If true, this would certainly explain why the USD declined (i.e. the interest rate rise that everyone expected has been postponed). However, in my experience it is very hard to ...

5

Within the fixed income space, there's a lot of literature on PCA trading. The first 2-3 principal component factors (PCs) can typically explain 90-99% of the total variances in yield curve movement. It's also nice, because the first PC looks like a change in the overall level of the yield curve, the second PC looks like a slope change, while the third ...

4

To answer this question, lets dive into some of the factors that generally determine foreign exchange rates. I've outlined the two of the most widely discussed factors below. Current account balance An economy's current account is a component of an economy's balance of payments and is a measure of the economy's financial transactions with the rest of the ...

3

Most traders have no idea what N(d2) is. I see two possibilities (a) they're using the delta of the option for the relevant strike, as seen by whatever model they're using, or (b) they are pricing a digital put on the yuan, using the full skew structure (as a former trader, that's the way I'd do it).

3

Yes, you can use e.g. the ECB daily official foreign exchange rate data as a reliable and consistent daily timeseries. ECB does a fixing at 14:15 CET, by some methodology they call a "daily concertation procedure". I don't easily find a description of the details (are they considering only traded prices, or bids and offers? How long of a time window ...

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What you're trying to do is express all your positions in terms of a risk currency. Then you can track your PnL in only one currency. You need to express all this in an Excel spread sheet and include some rates, a bit like the screenshot here.

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I just checked Google Finance and the EUR/USD = 1.1190.... for arguments sake lets say it goes up by 0.10 to 1.2190 the percentage change = 1.2190/1.1190-1 = +8.94% in terms of USD/EUR the beginning quote would be 1/1.1190 = 0.8937 but would be 1/1.2190 = 0.8203 after the EUR/USD went up by 0.10. Therefore the change in terms of USD/EUR = 0.8203/0.8937-1 = ...

1

there is nothing to do with implied distribution from option prices calculated with Breeden-Litzenberer approach. this distribution is "risk-neutral" not "real". consider this as a sort of theoretical and artificial, regarding to real disribution, idea. in the article the author wrote about demand for puts. so they/she calculated these probabilities from ...

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If the base ccy of the your portfolio is CAD, then it makes sense to use the asset weights in base too (= CAD) according to your described formula.

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Let $\{X_t \mid t \ge 0\}$ be the foreign exchange rate rate from $£$ to $\$$. Moreover, let$C(X_0, K, T)$and$P(X_0, K, T)$be the prices of the respective call and put options with strike$K$and maturity$T\$. Then \begin{align*} \frac{1}{X_0}P(X_0,\, K,\, T) = K C\left(\frac{1}{X_0},\, \frac{1}{K},\, T \right). \end{align*} Based on the given condition, ...

1

I am not sure what the purpose of your volatility calculation is. So, frankly, the question does not make 100% sense to me. However, countries do not engage in trade with just one other country but with many, so from an International Trade Theory point of view looking at a single bi-lateral rate (even an important one like SLOVAKIA/EUR) is not enough. ...

1

The volatility goes to 0 once the crown is pegged to the Euro. The value of an exchange rate between Currency1 and Currency2 the the ratio of the value of Currency1/Currency2. The realized volatility of a currency pair is the usually measured as some trailing average of the daily log-changes in this ratio. After the conversion was made the crown at a ...

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I assume you're doing interest rate parity or currency carry research. The proper interest rates to use in this context are the local deposit rates, preferably OIS (overnight indexed swap) rates. These are readily available for all major currencies nowadays.

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What you are looking at is relative PPP, which claims that exchange rate movements are explained by relative inflation movements, see wiki. However from the picture I would guess he is looking at a bottom up purchasing power parity aggregate, which as @user1483 eluded to, is a different calculation. There are several providers of this type of index, the OECD ...

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A currency quote (EURUSD 1.1, for example) put into an equation with units is 1 EUR / 1 USD = 1.1 or 1 EUR = 1.1 USD. Units or volume of a currency pair is expressed in terms of the base currency (EUR in the example), which means bids are buying and asks are selling the base currency. I glanced a few examples and it looks like you're right, but here's one ...

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For spot EURJPY with a USD risk currency, the EUR is expressed in USD using the EURUSD spot rate, say 1.1145 so your 100 USD means you can short 100 / 1.1145 = 89.7 EUR If you wanted to express the risk currency then you use the equivalent rate usually through the USD. In this case you would be buying EUR with your USD to then short EURJPY. So if you're ...

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