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## Hot answers tagged distribution

14

You can directly imply a probability distribution from a volatility skew. Note that, for any terminal probability distribution $p(S)$ at tenor $T$, we have the model-free formula for the call price $C(K)$ as a function of strike $K$ $$C=e^{-rT} \int_0^\infty (S-K)^+ p(S) dS$$ Therefore we can write e^{rT} \...

12

There are a number of different tests that are generally used to compare samples to different distributions, such as Jarque-Bera, Anderson-Darling, and Kolmogorov–Smirnov (see this related question). In your case, with just the standard deviation and mean, there isn't a whole lot to say. You need to assume a distribution (e.g. normal). You would be able ...

11

Interest rates in general are far from independent and identically distributed. A high interest rate observation is quite likely to be followed by another high observation, and the volatility is likely to be higher as well. Interest rates are also mean reverting, as in most real-world situations (at least for developed markets) interest rates rarely rise ...

9

Upon close reading, this appears to be 3 (interesting) questions, not one. I'm not sure if the mods have the tools needed to split it up, so I'm just going to write down the three questions as I see them and then deal with them one by one. Note, it is simpler for me to talk about variance instead of volatility. This has no material impact on the answer. ...

6

What you refer to as the 99.5th percentile is known as the "Value-at-Risk." You are correct that you will need to make a distributional assumption, and there is a popular and well-researched approach to this problem, though I'm not certain it could be called "standard." I would recommend you use the "truncated Levy flight" distribution. James Xiong at ...

6

Be careful, remember that the mean and the standard deviation don't tell you the whole story: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anscombe%27s_quartet

6

Well there are two main things to consider here. Many implementation of Black-Litterman use the market portfolio and the ex post volatility and correlation structure to back out implied returns to use as prior. As far as I know, there is no standard way to reverse-engineer the optimization problem in the presence of nonnormal markets. (the first guess is ...

5

I think an extremely interesting strand of research on this topic is represented by extensions of vine copulas with time-varying parameters. For vine copulas in general have a look at this site from the Technische Universität München: Vine Copula Models One of their research projects, which is the most relevant in this context, is:Time varying vine copula ...

5

The VaR of level $\alpha$ a loss random variable (the bigger the worse) is the quantity $q$ such that the loss is bigger with probability $1-\alpha$. Thus we need a $q$ such that $$P[L>q] = 1-\alpha,$$ where we can imagine $\alpha=99\%$ and thus we need the starting point of the $1\%$ tail. Because we have a probability of a loss of size $0$ of $75\%... 4 That can be a somewhat difficult question to answer, given that the context may yield different distributions. Nevertheless, I think that you could try to fit the best distribution algorithmically. For instance, lately I found this package at Matlab file exchange: Finding the best distribution that fits the data Link (...) This is where Mike's ... 4 You could try using the Gaussian Affine Term Structure Models (GATSM), with the right boundary conditions to stop rates being negative (in the style of their Black implementation). See, for example, Monika Piazzesi, the "Affine Term Structure Models" if you want to enter/modify the basis or the work of Krippner, for example "Measuring the stance of monetary ... 4 Exponential distribution, although it's a good distribution for modeling non-negative numbers, doesn't make sense here since it's mode is 0. From a pure statistical point of view, without any knowledge of interest rate, I'd recommend log-normal as in modeling stock prices and inverse-gamma or gamma distribution which are used to model variance or other ... 4 These returns are almost always modeled by finding some fundamental two-sided variable and modeling that. For options, we would model their prices as derivatives -- we would take the log-returns of underlying prices as the fundamental variable, possibly with other models for what would happen to volatilities and the like, and compute the consequences for ... 4 I found Coping With Copulas by Thorsten Schmidt really helped me to get a more basic understanding of copulas. As well as looking at some simple examples in R and thinking about different directions the transformations can happen. To answer your actual question I'll attempt to describe the steps involved as simply as I can. Let's say you use the copula ... 4 In the theory of copulas you want to model a multivariate (often bivariate) distribution and keep the marginals fixed. Thus you have random variables$X$and$Y$with cdf$F_X(x) = P[X \le x]$and$F_Y(y) = P[Y\le y]$and you want to find some$F_{X,Y}(x,y) = P[X \le x, Y\le y]$such that when you look at marginals you get$F_{X,Y}(x,\infty) = F_X(x)$and ... 4 Surely, there is; search for aggregational gaussianity in Google Scholar or ScienceDirect. In fact, 5 minutes returns are leptokurtic and fat-tailed; then as you increase timeframe, returns become more and more normal. Yearly data is almost normal, if you have enough points. 4 The rsgt is a skewed generalized t distribution, whereas your picture is a skewed student-t distribution. Try using fGarch package. Plot reproduced: library(fGarch) x<-seq(-2.5, +2.5, by=0.001) plot(x, fGarch::dsstd(x, mean = 0, sd = 1, nu = 30, xi = 1 + 0.5), type = "l", ylim=c(0, 2.4), lty = 1, xlab="z", ylab=expression(paste("... 3 Maybe this could also be a comment but I think an it is not possible to answer this question with a 'yes and here is how you do it'. It has been tried, e.g. by me for a university research project. In this research we focused primarily on aggregation of returns and the main problem was the tractability of the resulting distributions and expressions, also ... 3 It could be much more simple: if you use the method of moments (MM) then you estimate the mean and the variance and for example the kurtosis of your sample. Then you fit the parameters to these statistics. Alternatively you use maximum-likelihood (MLE). For MM: from wikipedia you get the mean and the variance. In your notation you can fit$b = \bar{r}$so$...

3

It's not possible with a simple linear transformation like the one you mentioned: since scale and thus the distance between mean and median are required to change, either the mean or the median will not be preserved. Therefore you must use nonlinear transformations, which will complicate quite a bit mantaining skew and kurtosis and imho will not be ...

3

the risk neutral drift is needed for pricing of derivatives. For a $100\%$ equity portfolio you can take the real world drift - sometimes a good guess is a drift of zero. For fixed-income you could do the same and might need more sophistication for the variance term. If you have short-dated bonds then you will need a special model for the pull-to-par. For ...

3

The pdfs of Student-t distributions have asymptotically Paretian tails, and the tail shape parameter (aka the maximal moment exponent) is equal to the distribution's degrees of freedom parameter. Assuming you have enough observations, you could estimate the Pareto parameter using the so-called Hill method (named after Bruce Hill, 1975). A word of caution: ...

3

Hi bcf: This is a good question. As you pointed out below, \begin{align*} p_0 &= \delta(y-y_0)\\ &=\delta(e^w-y_0). \end{align*} Then, \begin{align*} p_0 * g &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta(e^z-y_0) g(w-z) dz\\ &=\int_{0}^{\infty}\delta(u-y_0) g(w-\ln u) \frac{1}{u}du\\ &= \frac{1}{y_0}g(w-\ln y_0). \end{align*} Consequently, your last ...

3

My main reference will be "Dan Xu, Christian Beck - Transition from lognormal to chi-square superstatistics for financial time series" Non-equilibrium statistical mechanics (more specifically, superstatistics) gives some ideas of explaining the relation between time frame and its distribution: "...to regard the time series as a superposition of local ...

3

Your question is not clear. What you might want to say is what distribution should the futures price follow, under the risk-neutral or physical probability measure. In this sense, it will depend on your intention. For potential future exposure, you may want to use the physical measure for the price evolution, while the distribution will depend on your model ...

3

You know that : $X \sim N(\mu,\sigma^2)$. $Z = \large\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}$. $\text{Var}(Z) = \large\frac{1}{\sigma^2}\text{Var}(X) = \large\frac{1}{\sigma^2}\sigma^2 = 1$. So that $Z \sim N(0,1)$. However note that the pdf evaluated for X and Z have different domains. The following figure illustrate it : $X$ is plotted in a) and $Z$ in b) ...

3

When possible, I look at implementations in IMSL and the GSL for really good accuracy. Neither one appears to implement the Wald (inverse gaussian) or its quantile function. Matlab does have the distribution (as inversegaussian) so you could roll your own with fzero() or another root-finder based on that if you are unhappy with the accuracy, or for testing ...

2

Once we start building time-varying copulas like Lopes suggests in that paper, I think we are better off venturing into the world of state space models. When viewed in a bayesian context, the similarities between the approaches are striking to me. The advantage of the copula, as I understand it, is that it is a quick and dirty way to understand the ...

2

Normal distribution makes most sense these days for ratesthat are very low, or even negative, like euribor, chf libor Normal distribution is what is assumed by option brokers impliedvolatility quotes for these currencies

2

General rate trading wisdom shows that if anything, normal distribution fits developed markets better. For example, most swaption traders talk about implied volatilities in basis points (per day or annualized).

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