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Hi bcf: This is a good question. As you pointed out below, \begin{align*} p_0 &= \delta(y-y_0)\\ &=\delta(e^w-y_0). \end{align*} Then, \begin{align*} p_0 * g &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta(e^z-y_0) g(w-z) dz\\ &=\int_{0}^{\infty}\delta(u-y_0) g(w-\ln u) \frac{1}{u}du\\ &= \frac{1}{y_0}g(w-\ln y_0). \end{align*} Consequently, your last ...


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I found Coping With Copulas by Thorsten Schmidt really helped me to get a more basic understanding of copulas. As well as looking at some simple examples in R and thinking about different directions the transformations can happen. To answer your actual question I'll attempt to describe the steps involved as simply as I can. Let's say you use the copula ...


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The best introduction to copulas I know, i.e. with rigour and intuition, is the following. THE QUANT CLASSROOM BY ATTILIO MEUCCI A Short, Comprehensive, Practical Guide to Copulas Visually introducing a powerful risk management tool to generalize and stress-test correlations


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There are many ways answering this, here is one: We assume the asset price at $t=T$, $S_T = S_{T-1} \times (S_T / S_{T-1})$. Assuming continuous compounding, we can write, $S_T = S_{T-1} \times \exp(R_{T-1})$. Working the same way for the previous period, we get $S_{T} = S_{T-2} \times \exp(R_{T-1}+R_T)$. Working all the way back to the initial value of ...


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You can express the Normal distribution by Sklar's Theorem in terms of Gaussian Marginals and Gaussian Copula as follows: $$F(x_1,...,x_n)=C(F(x_1),...,F(x_n))=C^{Gau}(N(x_1),...,N(x_n))$$ So the distribution equals the copula function with the respective inverse marginals as arguments. You can aswell combine any types of Copula and (continuous) different ...


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In the theory of copulas you want to model a multivariate (often bivariate) distribution and keep the marginals fixed. Thus you have random variables $X$ and $Y$ with cdf $F_X(x) = P[X \le x]$ and $F_Y(y) = P[Y\le y]$ and you want to find some $F_{X,Y}(x,y) = P[X \le x, Y\le y]$ such that when you look at marginals you get $F_{X,Y}(x,\infty) = F_X(x)$ and ...


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Historical returns are not to be used 'untreated' for the calculation of option prices. The expectation that you will be using in Monte Carlo will take the form $$ C(K,T) = E^Q\{D(T)\ \max[0, S_T-K, 0]\} $$ where $T$ is the maturity, $K$ is the strike price, $S$ is the stock price and $D$ is the discount factor. But the expectation is taken under the 'risk ...


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You are concerned about non-normality, heteroskedasticity, and autocorrelation in your data. The normality of errors is not an assumption of OLS (it is for MLE regression). That is, you can conclude that OLS is the best linear unbiased estimator (BLUE) without assuming normality. Nevertheless, there are a number of techniques within the context of robust ...


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The issue I have with these approaches is that they use the unconditional distribution to eliminate the latent volatility. However, when the volatility process has very weak mean reversion one would need a very long and clean sample to make robust parameter identification from the unconditional density. They just throw away all the information from the ...


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Gatheral (Amazon) has a quite extensive discussion on that, and dives into calibration issues. In summary, what you describe appears to be less of a modeling issue, and more of a calibration problem. This is primarily because the model functions (such as the Heston model) are not by nature convex in their input parameters. This is simply result of the fact ...


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There is a brief and not overly technical introduction here: http://prescientmuse.blogspot.co.uk/2015/01/a-brief-introduction-to-copula.html And an application of use in a trading system with full R code here: http://prescientmuse.blogspot.co.uk/2015/02/vanilla-trading-algorithm.html Hope that helps!


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0/ Let's me use more common notations to avoid misunderstanding. We will consider $B_t^x$ and $B_t^y$ - two correlated Brownian motions, e.g. $<dB_t^x,dB_t^y>=\rho dt$. Just to recall, Ito's process: $$X_t = X_0 + \int_0^t \mu(s,\omega) ds + \int_0^t \sigma(s,\omega) dB_s^x\\ dX_t=\mu(t,\omega) dt + \sigma(t,\omega) dB_t^x$$ 1/ Single BMs: ...


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What about this sketch of an answer: Let's put $T=1$ in your formula to simplify the notation. Then $Y_b(t)$ is a Brownian bridge where $Y_b(0)=0$ and $Y_b(1)=b$. This can be written as $Y_b(t) = b\ t + Y_0(t)$, that is to say the standard Brownian bridge (from zero to zero) with an added drift $b\ t$. The standard Brownian bridge can be written in terms ...


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Its Chi-Square distribution ($k=$ number of portfolio assets): http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chi-squared_distribution#Definition



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