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0

This is not a perfect solution but perhaps the following approach could also serve you well as an indicator. Assuming you are only using a finite number (e.g. $n$) of bonds with fixed yields $r_i$ you can write $r_f(w_1, \dots,w_n)=\frac{\sum_0^n w_ir_i}{\sum_0^n w_i}$ with most of the weights being zero. Using the quotient rule you can now calculate ...

3

I dont think you can see convexity in such a plot, since each of these prices are not observed from a single bond deliverable, but from different coupon bond deliveries. If the delivery was always based on same coupon type bond and quite similar maturity ...

1

Assume we have $r(t)$ continuously compounded spot rate for maturity $t$. The price of the 2-year bond with semi-annual coupon $C$ is known to be $P$. We already have $r(0.5)$ and $r(1)$. We need $r(2)$ and $r(1.5) = f(r(1), r(2))$. Then $$P = C [e^{-0.5 \times r(0.5)} + e^{-r(1)}+e^{-1.5 \times r(1.5)}] + (1+C)e^{-2 \times r(2)}$$ Using linear ...

2

Your steps 1. to 3. sound reasonable. I am not sure about industry practice (what industry?) I always do step 1. using PCA on historical correlations. If you plan to do a regulatory exercise better check with your regulator what he prefers. Most interesting to me is step 4. which - I think - is in general impossible to do. This can be achieved only in very ...

0

There a likely multiple source of this indicator becoming negative in general. In this particular case this is probably related to the investment of Japanese monies in foreign bonds. Which in turn looks to be an effect of the quantitative easing by the Bank of Japan.

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