# Tag Info

11

The PCA analysis does not really tell you what the bonds do but it tells you how the rates move together. The variations of $n$ rates (i.e. 1 y, 2y, ...) are split up in (at first) abstract factors like $$\Delta R_i = \sum_{j=1}^n e_{i,j} f_j$$ where $\Delta R_i$ is the change in the rate $i$ and $f_j$ is factor $j$ and $e_{i,j}$ is the (factor loading=) ...

6

The majority of the movement in currencies is in the spot rates, rather than in the term structure. A 3-month rolling hedge would always be protecting against movements in the spot rates, no matter when they happen. Using your example, if the current EUR/USD rate is 1.3333, you might be able to get a 3-month forward at 1.3339. (Forgive me if I have the ...

4

Yes. Although sometimes people mean the Euro/Dollar currency pair which can cause confusion. Besides the daily mark-to-market, the counter-party risk is also removed through the clearing house for the futures. No. Eurodollar and FRA are not the same as swaps. A Eurodollar fixes an interest rate for a three month period in the future whereas a swap ...

4

Note that $\frac{F(0,s,T)}{F(0,t,T)} = \frac{T-t}{T-s}\frac{B(0,s)-B(0,T)}{B(0,t)-B(0,T)}$ and $\frac{F(s,s,T)}{F(s,t,T)} = \frac{T-t}{T-s}\frac{B(s,s)-B(s,T)}{B(s,t)-B(s,T)}$. Multiplying the numerator and denominator of the last expression with $B(0,s)$ and noting that $B(0,s)B(s,u)=B(0,u)$ (investing one Dollar for $s$ years and then for another $u-s$ ...

3

If you're asking what the FX Outright for 1M EUR/PLN is, given that table, then yes the answer is just outright = spot + fwd points, which is 3.4550 + 0.0079 = 3.4629 (you had the wrong column for your 1M value). Usually fwd points are quoted directly (i.e. not as an outright), using a divisor set by market convention. I expect EUR/PLN divisor to be 10,000, ...

3

for Japan, act/365 for the domestic market, and act/360 for the euroyen market. For swaps, fixed leg convention is 6m libor act/365, floating leg, if based on libor, is the 6m rate act/360, if tibor, then the 3m rate act/365.

3

The two are not equivalent, because of the cross-currency basis spread (CCBS), which became a risk factor in itself sice 2007, and does depend on term. This practically leeds to a difference in your constantly-assumed notionals (the notional is not constant anymore). What it happens is that you assume having a constant notional cross-currency swap that ...

2

In my mind you are simply right: you arrive at $$f(t,S) = S(t) - K e^{-r(T-t)}.$$ Assume that $t=0$, so we are at the inception of the contract, then $$f(0,S) = S(0) - Ke^{-r T}.$$ If you choose $K = S(0) e^{r T}$ then the contract value at inception is zero. This simply means that the fair price for the forward is given by $K= S(0) e^{r T}$ which is ...

2

A very good and up-to-date question. Whether you use the LIBOR-rate or any other rate for discounting depends on what you decide to be the fundamental rates in the market. Before the crisis LIBOR-rates were mostly seen as the fundamental market rates (or the "risk-neutral" rates). After the crisis it turned out that these rates were not completely free of ...

2

You need to isolate the risk factors that impact your forward contract, which is your spot fx rate, and the two rates of each currency that underlies the forward contract. You therefore need to estimate the VaRs of each of those risk factors. You also need the correlations between the underlying risk factors. For example, a forward to buy USD in exchange ...

1

The Heath-Jarrow-Morton representations of short interest rate models (such as Hull-White) will give you an expression for the evolution of the entire forward curve, but it doesn't make the problem any easier. The closed form ZC formulae you mention above are probably your best bet.

1

I'm not expert on this field so may not able to answer your question precisely, but I can try the best to offer you some hints. According to the pure expectations hypothesis(PEH), forward rates provide unbiased predictions about future spot rates. Even if the PEH can be rejected, various scholars including Fama has provided evidence for the weaker form of ...

1

Broadly, yes. An IMM dated swap is usually just a standard swap starting on an IMM date. However, there are a few closely related instruments which you could be asking about: IMM-anniversary swap - this not only starts on an IMM date, but also keeps to IMM dates for the roll schedule. It is a better match when hedging with IR futures, because an IMM-start ...

1

Yes, that's exactly right. IMM swap are swaps that resets on IMM dates. Otherwise, the math is exactly the same as a standard swap.

1

The filtration is hardly the problem. Let's say you want to price a 1x4 and a 2x3 years swaption. Thus you model three forward rates $L(t,T_1,T_2), L(t,T_2, T_3), L(t,T_3,T_4)$ The swaprate $S_{\alpha,\beta}(t)$ depends on the forward rates $L_i(t,T_{i-1},T_i)$ with $i \in (\alpha+1, \dots, \beta)$ Thus the price of the 1x4 swaption given by ...

1

The chart you linked to offers data for the "instantaneous forward rate" which are the rates you are looking for (f(tj,tj+τk)). Regarding the construction of the zero-coupon yield curves (cited from the ECB website): "The ECB estimates zero-coupon yield curves for the euro area and derives forward and par yield curves. A zero coupon bond is a bond that ...

1

Forward points are calculated by the short term interest rate desks (STIR) and, because central banks and governments don't often change their money market base rates, the fluctuations set by the interest rate markets are infrequent. The interest rates depend on the money markets. Forex all-in rates are calculated depending on the interest rate premium, or ...

1

Not sure how you're looking to use it, but if you start with an IMM date in cell A1 (e.g. 9/18/2013), in cell A2 put... =DATE(YEAR(A1), MONTH(A1) + 3, 1 + MOD(4 - WEEKDAY(DATE(YEAR(A1), MONTH(A1) + 3, 1)), 7) + 14) ...and drag it down. It will return the 3rd Wednesday of the month for every third month, so assuming that the month of the date you put in ...

1

Because the day count of your inquired date is 366 days: Hkd daycount is act/365 therefore 366/365 Usd daycount is act/360 therefore 366/360 $$\frac{7.7487}{7.7587} = \frac{1+r_2(\frac{366}{365})}{1+0.00965×\frac{366}{360}}$$ Solving for $r_2 = 0.8486$.

1

Richard nails it. One needs to distinguish the forward price (or just "forward"), which is a number that denotes at which strike you can now enter a forward without upfront payment, and the value of a forward contract, which is typically zero at inception (if the strike chosen is indeed the forward price), but then varies over time, and ends up as \$S(T) - ...

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