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Both approaches have drawbacks, so if one must choose among the two then one shall compare those drawbacks in the specific case. Or another way would be devising a hybrid of the two (e.g. adding statistics of historical deviations of the fund portfolio from the (1) view etc...). Among the drawbacks of (1): trading costs, rebalancings, management fees etc ...


3

In effect, you are wondering whether to price this option on risk-free probability distributions (B-S drift $r_f$), or real-world ones (B-S drift $\mu$, however calibrated) One cannot short the mutual fund, so the argument for using risk-free is weakened. But, there are various economic equilibrium arguments why using it may still be OK. If you use the ...


3

No matter how you calculate the VaR (historical simulation, covariance approach, MC) I assume that you work on historical data or data derived from the history of assets, risk factors and theresuch. If this assumption is correct then I would use approach (1). If you know the exact positions today of the (sub-)funds, then (except from some technicalities) ...



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