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A martingale must have constant expectation, such that adding a deterministic finite variation process $(b-r)dt$ would break the martingale property (except for when its a constant, which it is not by multiplication with $dt$). Hence the finite variation process must be eliminated under $Q$ for LRS to be an (equivalent) martingale measure, and as shown the ...


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I saw a quote from Brigo & Mercurio "IR models" (page 26, 2.1 No-Arbitrage in Continuous Time) . May be it will help you to find answer: Harrison and Pliska (1983) proved the following fundamental result. A financial market is (arbitrage free and) complete if and only if there exists a unique equivalent martingale measure.



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