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stock price * volatility * 0.4 * sqt(T), where T denotes time to expiration in years and 0.4 is coming from sqt(1/(2*pi)). The simplifying assumption here is (and that is very important and you will most likely be asked to state the assumptions should such question be asked in the interview): strike price equals underlying asset price AND asset prices are ...

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You can mitigate your fx exposure (hedge fx risk by engaging in an fixed/fixed fx swap. Let's setup an example: You want to invest in two bonds, one EUR denominated and one USD denominated bond. Each bond pays semi-annual coupons (at the same dates for simplicity purposes) for the next two years. You are a US-based investor and thus want to earn returns on ...

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Consider a dynamic hedging strategy where you invest $H_t$ in the stock at time $t$. To eliminate all risk, the value of the investment must be equal to the claim at time $T$. Using Ito's calculus, we could express $A_T$ as follows: $$A_T=\frac{T}{2}+\int_0^T 2W_t \left(1-\frac{t}{T}\right) dW_t=\frac{T}{2}+\int_0^T H_tdW_t$$ Thus the strategy would be to ...

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This is, of course, a very old play. The main thing that gets in the way of trading it is that puts are rarely available in a quantity that matches typical credit instrument notionals. Here's a decent paper by Peter Carr on the topic, see equation (4) and surrounding.

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You may not be able to reduce a position. Either because there is no liquid markets (for exotic and less transparent derivatives markets) or your position is to big to reduce at once (if you take on big positions versus an institutional client (e.g., pension fund) you may not be able to go to the market to reduce it all). Plus, the whole point of trading is ...

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Strictly speaking a vanilla swap is not really a derivative instrument, and vanilla swaps are often considered linear products. Having said that, there are a host of non-standard swap contracts on a myriad of underlying contingent assets which would make the swap qualify as a derivative non-linear instrument. Short answer is that it completely depends on ...

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You would simply hedge with a floating rate leg. That is the whole idea of swaps though. A price taker is paying fixed and receiving floating then such price taker usually is hedging the risk of interest rates increasing, meaning he is not concerned with the risk of decreasing rates. Generally such participant has floating rate liabilities. Let's say the ...

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