# Tag Info

3

For a two-factor option pricing model with underlying variables $S$ and $r$ defined as above, if we assume there is no correlation between the two Wiener processes $W_1$ and $W_2$, one finds the generalized Black-Scholes PDE \begin{align} V_t+\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2V_{SS}+r\,S\,V_S-r\,V+\frac{1}{2}\Sigma\,^2\,V_{rr}+\kappa(\theta-r)V_r=0 \end{align} This ...

4

Mean reversion speed $\kappa$ is better interpreted with the concept of half-life, which can be calculated from $\text{HL} = \ln(2) / \kappa$. For example, if the mean reversion coefficient is $\kappa = 1.5$, then the half-life of the process is $\ln(2) / 1.5 = 0.46209812$ years, or about 6 months. Let's assume that the current interest rate is 1% and the ...

3

In the Mean-Reverting Models like C.I.R \begin{align} &dr_t=\kappa(\theta-r_t)dt+\sigma\sqrt {r_t} dW_t \end{align} speed of mean reversion ($\kappa$) is not negative.If the condition $2\kappa\theta> \sigma^2$ holds, then the drift is sufficiently large for the process to be guaranteed positive and not reach zero. This condition is known as the Feller ...

1

The quarterly compound rate: \begin{align*} \Big(1+\frac{0.095}{4}\Big)^4 - 1= 9.84\,\%. \end{align*}

6

You know that the Ho-Lee model is represented by the stochastic differential equations \begin{align} dr_t=\lambda_t\,dt+\sigma\,dW_t \end{align} In order to Implementation our binomial tree, we use the Euler discretization. \begin{align} r_t=r_{t-\Delta t}+\lambda_{t-\Delta t}\,\Delta t+\sigma\,\sqrt {\Delta t} \,Z \end{align} where $Z$ is a standard normal ...

3

You can calibrate the model by discretizing in time, and using a forward induction method as originally proposed by Jamishidian in 1991: F.Jamshidian, Forward Induction and Construction of Yield Curve Diffusion Models, J.Fixed Income 6, 62-74 (1991). Although he formulated this induction in the language of the binomial tree, the method is more general, and ...

1

The first principle component of interest rates will not help you capture the term structure better at all. It will basically remove all term structure affects you are going to see. When we decompose the returns on interest rates you are going to get 3 PC's which explain 99.9% of the variance. PC1 - Level of the interest rates (~90% of variance) PC2 - ...

1

In a case like this, where the settlement date is in the middle of the coupon period, it is not right to use PV = -110 (minus the purchase price) in Step 3. Instead you should increase the purchase price by the accrued interest, which is a fraction of the coupon based on how far the settlement date is within the current coupon period. (So for ex if you are ...

2

You wrote Given this, what does the value of 1M LIBOR curve at 1Y point represent? It is a real number X such that: The following deal can be agreed today in the swap market: You will pay me the amount X (fixed in advance) one year from now, and in return I agree to pay you one year from now the amount Y equal to the 1 Month Libor Rate published at that ...

1

I just want to mention that it's highly prevalent to apply PCA to rate levels in rich/cheap analyses. Personally I prefer that... There's an old MS publication that discusses this very topic and the recommendation is to use level PCA for rich/cheap, and to use change PCA for risk management. There's a really good Salomon paper (Principles of Principal ...

1

The literature on cointegration in large datasets or panels is really the only place where I've seen this sort of issue discussed. Breitung and Pesaran, among other places, talks about it. I would recommend applying the PCA to the rate changes (perhaps with some kind of zero lower bound adjustment). Then, take the cumulative sum of each of the factors. ...

0

We assume that the short interest rate $r_t$ follows the Hull-White model, that is, the short rate $r$ and the stock price $S$ satisfies a system of SDEs of the form \begin{align*} dr_t &= \lambda(\theta_t -r_t)dt + \sigma_0 dW_t,\\ dS_t &= S_t\Big[r_t dt + \sigma \Big(\rho dW_t + \sqrt{1-\rho^2} dB_t\Big)\Big], \end{align*} where $\lambda$, ...

4

Libor includes risk. It is riskier to make a 6m loan than two 3m loan. So the 6m Libor curve is not the same as the 3m one. Ther difference is the basis spread. When using a short rate model, you are modelling one curve. As a first approximation, you can deduce the other curves by adding a deterministic basis spread.

0

You can start with a deterministic basis spread. There are several attempts to model the basis spread both modeling the spreads separately with positive stochastic processes and by modelling the different indexes. You are right: if you model the indices they could cross and it is hard to enforce abscence of twists. Probably every paper on this subject ...

6

I guess it depends on what they're referring to... The traditional swap curve (LIBOR-based) is certainly not risk free, as evidenced by the experience of the financial crisis and the resulting migration to OIS discounting. The OIS curve (which is a kind of swap curve...) is now the standard risk-free curve. The Treasury yield curve is not favored, because ...

6

It is a very interesting question. There is a brief explanation in the book Martingale methods in financial modelling. Basically, it says that, the interest short rate $r_t$ can be modeled in any martingale measure $Q$, however, as long as the zero-coupon bond price $P(t, T)$ is defined by \begin{align*} P(t, T) = E^{Q}\Big(e^{-\int_t^T r_s ds} \mid ...

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