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No, it's not correct. The 1000 you invest at the beginning of the second year should also be discounted, That 1000 also has a present value. This gives: $$NPV = \frac{2200}{(1+R)^2} - \frac{1000}{(1+R)} - 1000$$ with $R$ the annual rate. Remember, you cannot simply add incoming or outgoing cash flows that occur at different times.

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