Tag Info

Samuelson suggested in 1965 that the stock prices follow a martingale (see P. Samuelson “Proof That Properly Anticipated Prices Fluctuate Randomly”). Assume there is a security with a random payoff $X_T$ at date $T$. Let $..., P_{t–1}, P_t, P_{t+1},...$ be the time series of prices of a security with this payoff. Finally, define the price change $\Delta ...

A martingale is a random process $X(t)$ which has the following properties: $ E[X(T)|\mathcal{F}_t] = X(t) $ for $T > t$ and $ E[|X(T)|] < \infty $ where $\mathcal{F}_t$ is the filtration at time $t$. A martingale is a random walk, but not every random walk is a martingale. A Brownian random walk is a martingale if it does not have drift. Also, a ...

From what I remember, there is no real relation between Markov and Martingale, and my intuition was confirmed by this post. Basically, it says that you can say neither of the following: If A is Markov, then A is a martingale. If A is a martingale, then A is Markov. further down the post, you can find two counter examples: $dX_t = a dt + \sigma dW_t$ is ...

I will defer to others answering the parts of your question concerning the relationship between Markov processes and martingales (@SRKX has already given a good explanation of the relationship) and concerning statistical testing. Broadly, however, it is not possible to "prove" either assumption, but only to fail to reject them. A Non-Random Walk Down Wall ...

Often one will find the argument that a random walk of price changes would be a proof of the efficient market hypothesis, but this is (IMO) a logical fallacy: Only because the EMH does imply random walks in the price changes, the finding of random walks does not imply automagically that the EMH is true.

A martingale can be viewed as a fair game (a game in which there is no arbitrage strategy) A (centered) random walk is a martingale (think of it as the total Gain of the fair game) If EFH is in order, then you can think that all information is in the current price, I think this more comparable to Markov Property than to Martingale property. Hope that ...

In general, if you have a process that you can write under the form $F(B_t,t)$ where $F$ is $\mathcal{C}^{2,1}$ then Itô's lemma gives you the drift term and diffusion term of $dF$. Then if the resulting SDE has a null drift (that's where Black Scholes PDE comes from), and you get a only local martingale. For it to be a proper martingale you can look at ...

For Itô Processes $dX(t) = \mu(t) \mathrm{d}t + \sigma(t) \mathrm{d}W(t)$ you have the result that (under appropriate assumptions which ensure that the local martingale is a martingale, e.g. $E( (\int \sigma(t)^2 \mathrm{d}t )^{1/2} ) < \infty$, etc.): $X$ is a martingale $\Leftrightarrow$ $\mu(t) = 0$. So in order to check if a process $X$ is a ...

Martingale and Markov process are both stochastic processes where the sequences of random variables are not entirely independent, and their differences are: In martingale, the expectation of the next value IS the present value, so this property is sometimes called 'fair game'. In Markov process, the expectation of the next value only DEPENDS ON the present ...

In reality, you needn't bring exotics into consideration to think about this issue. Consider the case of a shop that has fundamental analysts but also trades options on those equities. The fact that the fundamental analysts trade stocks means they think those prices are somehow "wrong". So of course it seems from their point of view that the options ...

In the equilibrium models you can assume that there exists so called Alpha, i.e. an opportunity that can be exploited. Most of the buy side models (i.e. asset allocation, portfolio construction) are based on this idea. As a theoretical model, you can consider CAPM with heterogeneous beliefs: Hedge funds claim to generate the “Alpha”, i.e., excess ...

Let $(\Omega,\mathcal{F},\mathbb{F},\mathbb{\mu})$ be a filtered probability space. Market efficiency implies that the stock price process is Markov with $\mathbb{E}[f(X_t)|\mathbb{F}_s] = g(X_s)$ for $0 \leq s \leq t$ where $f$ and $g$ are Borel measurable functions. It additionally implies that the discounted stock price process is a martingale w.r.t. ...

Edit: Albeit of BFin or entry MFE type, sounds like homework.Answer: In many ways, for example take the countable product of (.-E[A])*(lawofA). More generally if g(x,y) is a function such that E[g(A,E[A])]=0 then g(.,E[A])*lawofA will do. Of course it doesn't have to be equivalent, like if A is deterministic.