New answers tagged mathematics
0
Well, if you divide a time integral by the length of the time interval, you'll get the average (in time) price:
$$
\frac{1}{t}\int_0^T x_t\mathrm dt
$$
so at least on of the meanings of the integral itself is an average price time the length of the interval. In such a case, I think the normalized quantity (the integral divided by the length) is more ...
1
Although I don't think that this is a question that fits in here, I will give you a reference.
You might want to have a look at the so called greeks, you find a first overview here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greeks_(finance)
4
First question: Looking at the paper, we see that the authors assume, for some $\epsilon > 0$,
$$
\underset{n}{\limsup} P \left(| \widehat{h}(y^n) - \widehat{h}(y) | > \epsilon \right) > \epsilon,
$$
and from this they wish to deduce $(*)$, or $(3.13)$ in their notation, for some $\epsilon$. I claim that if $\left \{ \widehat{h}(y^n) : n \in ...
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