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3

Lots of wealth management firms still use MPT; in my experience regulators like it because they understand it. If asset returns are normally distributed, the standard deviation of the portfolio is a coherent risk measure (this can be seen by noting that the normal distribution's CVaR, which is a coherent risk measure, can be written as $$\mu+c \sigma$$ ...


2

I assume you're talking about this formula: $$U(w) = w'\mu - \frac{1}{2} \lambda w' \Sigma w = w'\mu - \frac{1}{2} \lambda \sigma_\omega^2$$ where $\sigma_\omega^2$ denotes the portfolio variance for a portfolio with weights $\omega$. Dividing by two is purely done for convenience, optimizing this formula requires taking the derivative with respect to ...


1

Sure a lot of traditional (mutual) buy side funds use MPT. They also mostly subscribe to the efficient market hypotheses. And they also do not hide the fact that they have no interest to lobby many retirement investment and savings schemes to allow for long/short investments but hold on to long-only. And finally, most of them underperform simple benchmark ...


1

I am engineer studying Finance, therefore Im not an expert in Math/Stat, but not noob. I disagree with the previous answer. In fact, I know portfolio managers and hedge fund assesors that usses MPT. It must be said that you need to know what that represents, and also not only focus your investment in MPT, but consider other methods. Like in every other ...


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MPT should be called Medieval Portfolio Theory, it is a theory from 50 years ago with huge theoretical flaws (mean-variance utility, use of Pearson's correlation that is not coherent, based on historical data). Come on, it is an error maximizer. The least one could do is Michoud resampling, but it is patented. Or a bayesian Black-Litterman would be more ...


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a) The formula for Beta is: $$\beta_i=\frac{\sigma_{i,M}^2}{\sigma_M^2}=\frac{0.165^2}{0.11^2}=2.25$$ b) So by the CAPM equation, the expected return for the asset is: $$E(R_i)=r_f+\beta(R_M-r_f)=0.04+2.25(0.12-0.04)=0.22=22\%$$ c) If the variance of the stock is $0.22^2$, since this variance was multiplied by $\beta=2.25$, we get: ...



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