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In small sample, there is no reason why $x' \epsilon$ will be 0. In fact, there is no real reason why $\epsilon$ should be independent. The fact that you are assuming a linear specification for the returns means you are to some extent making assumptions of linear regression. Justifying the errors being uncorrelated with the independent variables is justified ...


Always take care that you got the compounding frequency right. I recommend you take a deeper look at http://breakingdownfinance.com/finance-topics/derivative-valuation/forward-contract/ . You can download an excel file here and take a deeper look at the formula. You can also give in the compounding frequency as input. In case of doubt, or as a standard ...


If we compound semi-annually and we have half year to go, then the current forward price is $$F = S \left(1+\frac{r}{2}\right) = 125 \left(1+\frac{0.10}{2}\right)$$ Isn't it as simple as that?

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