# Tag Info

5

By definition the fair value of an option is given by an expectation value of the payoff, $\mathbf{E}\left[\textrm{payoff}(\textit{paths})\right]$. The probability distribution of the paths is the risk neutral measure. This is just an integral expression of the form you wrote. This applies to all option prices. Many options are, of course, special in the ...

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I am not sure if I understood your question correctly but I will try to answer it anyway. If you have a standard normal random vector $z \sim N(\mathbb{0},I_n)$ (where $z,0 \in \mathbb{R}^{n\times1}$ and $I_n \in \mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$ is the identity matrix) and you want to transform it into a multivariate normal $x \sim N(\mu,\Sigma)$ you do it the ...

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To keep things simple let's assume you have a perfect random number generator (i.e. I will discuss only the statistics not the numerics of the problem). I will also focus on the practical matter and gloss over some mathematical details. From a practical perspective "convergence" means that you will never get an exact answer from Monte-Carlo but ...

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the output of an MC simulation depends on the random numbers used and if the distribution used is not too weird, after 10,000 runs you will get an answer that is distributed $$\mu + \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}} Z,$$ with $Z$ a standard normal. Here $n=10,000.$ With $\mu$ the quantity you want and $\sigma$ the standard deviation. So you won't get precisely the ...

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Who gave you that idea? You absolutely can use Finite Differences for other PDEs. They are routinely used to solve hyperbolic PDEs (wave equation, both first and second order) and elliptic PDEs (steady state diffusion/heat equation). You can even mix and match the equation types and create PDEs that have characteristic of both hyperbolic and parabolic ...

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Rather than thinking about the steps, think about the piecewise regions where your value is constant. When using the explicit scheme, time zero option value at any stock price for your simple digital option is basically just a function of which antecedent nodes (accounting for backwards timestepping) were above or below the strike. Slight modifications of ...

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It appears that you are plotting your analytical delta as a % of the delta of the underlying. This is why the delta converges to 100% As for the numerical delta, it could be that you are not adjusting for the DV01 of the underlying. This would explain why the numerical delta still increases as the option gets more in the money and why the distortion is ...

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Presumably you are trying to use a finite difference method to solve a differential equation. The non-uniformity of the grid has an impact on accuracy. Hence, it is useful to include a parameter in the grid-generation algorithm that controls the rate at which the spacing increases away from the boundary. There are many approaches for generating non-uniform ...

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Try Finite Differences to calculate your Greeks, it will give all the greeks for that specific underlying moviment. In order to back out the dollar change in your pnl just multiply each greek by the amount held in that position.

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As pointed out in the comment, the answer here: What is an efficient method to find implied volatility? provides: Link to http://www.jaeckel.org/ and in particular the "By Implication" paper: http://www.pjaeckel.webspace.virginmedia.com/ByImplication.pdf . An explanation of the problem with in-the-money options and implied volatility is provided in that ...

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