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Sure, the variance of the total wealth can be expressed in terms of the variances and covariances of the prices of the assets. If $$W = \sum_{i} \pi_i P_i$$ where $\pi_i$ is the total dollar amount invested in asset $i$ with price $P_i$. The variance of total wealth is then  Var(W) = \sum_i \pi_i Var(P_i) + \sum_i \sum_{j, j\neq i} \pi_i \pi_j Cov(P_i, ...