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For an American option, you have the right to exercise at any intermediate time. Then, at time $T-1$, if you exercise your option, you obtain the payoff $X_{T-1}$. However, if you wait to exercise at the maturity $T$, your value is $\frac{1}{1+r}\mathbb{E}^Q\left(X_T \mid \mathscr{F}_{T-1} \right)$. Your option value at time $T-1$ is the maximum of these ...


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Do these work for you? P34 of http://web.mit.edu/junpan/www/SVJ.pdf P1360 of http://www.darrellduffie.com/uploads/pubs/DuffiePanSingleton2000.pdf P2045 of http://www.math.ku.dk/~rolf/bakshi.pdf



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