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As I see it the question does not enforce that the market is free of arbitrage. This is why you can get to contradicting prices. Thus you can't actually apply a risk-neutral argument here without making additional assumptions. You yourself provide the example of such an arbitrage. If the underlying process had a B&S dynamics you could just borrow money ...


Richard nails it. One needs to distinguish the forward price (or just "forward"), which is a number that denotes at which strike you can now enter a forward without upfront payment, and the value of a forward contract, which is typically zero at inception (if the strike chosen is indeed the forward price), but then varies over time, and ends up as $S(T) - ...

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