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Using $q = 1-p$ we can work out the root as: $$\sqrt{1-4pq} = \sqrt{1-4p(1-p)} = \sqrt{1-4p+4p^2} = \sqrt{(1-2p)^2}$$ Taking the positive root reduces this to $(1-2p)$. This gives for the fraction: $$\frac{1 + \sqrt{1-4pq}}{2p} = \frac{1 + (1-2p)}{2p} = \frac{1-p}{p}$$ This also holds inside the logarithm.


2

I think the main difference even in this little example is the gain-loss asymmetry which is a known stylized fact: When you look at the big bump both time series posses your artificial one is perfectly symmetric whereas the real one takes longer for going up and then crashes in a relatively shorter time frame. This is a known phenomenon in real financial ...


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If you have a vector $X = (X_1,\ldots,X_n)$ of a multivariate normal distribution with covariance matrix $\Sigma$ and $F_i$ is the marginal cumulative distribution function of $X_i$ then $F_i(X_i)$ is uniformly distributed. So what you can do: generate uniforms (e.g. Sobol or Halton) transform to uncorrelated Gaussians transform these Gaussians to ...



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