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I don't have much experience in the matter, but I've been doing some related literature research recently and I think these links can be helpful: A rather recent study from CME A (possible a bit biased) report by BlackRock A report by Lyxor (asset manager affialiated to Societe Generale)


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I think one should start with the basic Asset Pricing papers such as: Mehra and Prescott 1985; Campbell and Cochrane 1999; Bansal and Yaron 2004; Most of the models are then variations of these in one way or another. Some other more complex but potentially interesting are on intermediation. Some authors provide codes. Take a look for instance ...


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The current contract value is roughly 30k euros. The bidask spread is 1 tick, which equals 10 euros. Lets say you buy the contract and roll 3 times a year and then liquidate your position at expiry. You will hence pay 1 full bidask spread + 3 rolls, which if done via spreads with market orders, are equal to 1 tick each, hence you will pay 40 euros on bidasks ...


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A variance swap can be replicated with vanilla European options. If you take derivative with respect to variance, you need to do the same thing on both sides. That is, you need also take derivative with respect to variance on those vanilla options. However, the resulting derivative is not the vega in the usual sense, which is the derivative with respect to ...



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