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To expand on pbr142, If the implied volatility (vis. Black & Scholes) is persistently higher for short-expiry contracts away from the money, the problem is the model, not the thing that's modeled. The price of a contract at a given point in time is the "correct" price at that point in time (or we should move this to philosophy.stackexchange.com). So ...


You have to remember that implied volatility comes from a "wrong" model to give the right answer. Option prices are determined by supply and demand (subject to a few arbitrage bounds). A higher implied volatility for OTM/ITM options relative to ATM options simply means that the prices of these options are higher than the Black-Scholes model would imply ...

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