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Similar question has been discussed previously; see Why does the short rate in the Hull White model follow a normal distribution?. Basically, the probabilistic limit of normal random variables is still normal. Then, as $$\sum_{[t_{i-1},t_{i}]\in\pi_{n}}f(t_{i-1})(W_{t_{i}}-W_{t_{i-1}})$$ is normal, the limit $$\int_{0}^{t}f(\tau)dW_{\tau},$$ in probability, ...

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