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to answer my own question, there's no popular model for the question, that $dS/S=\mu(t)dt+\sigma(t)dW$, and $\sigma(t)$ is correlated with $\mu(t)$. the general framework should be stochastic volatility model, but need do the extension on my own.


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A key property of Brownian motion is independent increments. So if $x-1 > y$, then $$ \mathbb{E}[\Delta W_x \Delta W_y] = 0 $$ because the time intervals [x-1,x] and [y-1,y] do not overlap. If they do overlap, i.e. $x-1 \leq y < x$, then \begin{align} \mathbb{E}[\Delta W_x \Delta W_y] =&\ \mathbb{E}[(W_x - W_{x-1}) (W_y-W_{y-1})] \\ =&\ ...


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In general, there cannot be a closed-form solution of a random coefficients VG model. The reason is the drift-restriction that needs to be imposed to ensure that the discounted price process is a martingale under the risk-neutral measure. Using the bank account as numeraire, the restriction is $$ \frac{1}{\beta} > \theta + \frac{\sigma^2}{2} $$ where ...


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Bond Price Dynamics I do not know the source of the bond dynamics you show above but seeing how we are dealing with an affine model there is a very elegant way to derive those. Due to the model being affine the bond price is given by $$P(t,T)=A(t,T)e^{-r(t)B(t,T)}$$ you can find the exact formulas for $A(t,T)$ and $B(t,T)$ in this document (or just read ...


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adam I still think that your question is a bit vague but perhaps the following will be of some help to you. First of all Itô's theorem is a tool. It will never give you the price by itself. While working out the concrete formula one might end up using it in one context or another. In case of a european option, a borel measurable function $h$ and $X_t$ ...



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