# Tag Info

11

There is another reason why Stoc Vol Models should be usually preferred to Local Vol Models, this reason is explained in the Hagan et al. paper "Managing Smile Risk" about SABR process and is in simple terms the fact that "smile dynamics" is poorly predicted by local vol models leading to bad Hedging of exotic options. Anyway Local Vol models have the good ...

9

Okay just to wind things down here, I think an important clarification is needed if readers might come and seek to a similar solution. The Geometric Brownian Motion (GBM) is a model of asset prices dynamics which is usually given as follows: $$dS_t = \mu S_t dt + \sigma S_t dB_t$$ where $B_t$ is a standard brownian motion which has several important ...

8

To recover the Black-Scholes pricing equation, you should first express the standard normal cdf in terms of its characteristic function analogous to the Heston solution: $$N(x) = \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^{\infty} Re [\frac{e^{-i\phi x} f(\phi)}{i\phi}] d\phi$$ where $f(\phi)$ is the characteristic function of the standard normal distribution: $$... 6 Here's a research note devoted to pricing of CMS by means of a stochastic volatility model. The authors indicate in the Introduction that an analysis of the coupon structure leads to the conclusion that CMS contracts are particularly sensitive to the asymptotic behavior of implied volatilities for very large strikes. Market CMS rates actually drive the ... 6 For pricing and hedging a portfolio of vanilla options, stochastic volatility is almost always preferable to local volatility since empirically it more accurately captures the evolution of the smile. 6 I'm guessing, and correct me if I'm wrong, you want to create a number of possible paths the stock price could follow with the local volatilty given by GARCH depending on the simulated history, or in pseudocode: N <- numberOfPaths T <- numberOfSteps for (i in 1:N) { newSeries <- pastPrices for (t in 1:T) { epsilon <- normrnd(0,1) ... 5 Let dS_t = \mu_tS_tdt + \sigma_tS_tdW_t be the underlying GBM (Geometric Brownian Motion)-like dynamics as in the question. Let B_t a Brownian motion such that d[B,W]_t = \rho dt, \rho\in[-1,1]. CIR (Cox-Ingersoll-Ross) for \sigma_t^2 (when combined with GBM-like underlying dynamics, it is the popular Heston SV model)$$d\sigma_t^2 = ...

5

I am going to supply an answer that is quite similar to SRKX's (which is very very good) because I want to discuss in more detail a few important things. First, you cannot use a stochastic volatility model for the SDE that you've provided as that's GBM with constant diffusion. However, based on what you've said it's obvious you wish to model a discretized ...

5

This effect is coming from the supply and demand in the options markets. Many portfolio managers want (or need) to buy out of the money put options, and many are willing to sell out of the money call options (thereby funding the purchase of put options). Now, when the market goes down, dealers find themselves short vol and they need to buy options to cover ...

4

You cannot derive the probability distribution you require, because for VaR you need a real-world probability distribution. From the options prices, it is only possible to obtain a risk-neutral distribution. Now, if you are willing to assume some kind of parametric relationship between the risk-neutral and real-world distributions, then you might find the ...

4

You have to ask yourself what the ultimate purpose of this parameterization is. In their case, they imply the "end-goal is martingale pricing or maximum-likelihood estimation", both of which are ultimately about capturing long-period dynamics rather than intraday or interday behavior. For this reason, the fact that intraday variance may, ahem, vary around ...

4

The SABR model has an overly fat right tail. If you do the CMS replication using cash-settled swaptions you find that you need ridiculously high strikes.

4

The standard realized volatility calculation assumes an underlying model: geometric Brownian motion with constant drift and volatility. Then realized vol squared is an unbiased estimator of the process volatility squared. If you want to move beyond Black Scholes then you have two possibilities: look at a different formal model and the estimators for its ...

4

The model is similar to the Barndorﬀ-Nielsen - Shephard model. But this model is much more general. On the other hand in this paper by Heston it is exactly your form that is used. Already Scott in 1987 considered a model of your form (see this) Finally in this thesis you find the names Hull-White model (of course there is the interest rate model too) and ...

4

There are lots of papers online and here are a few I would suggest math.umn riskworx G. Dimitroff, J. de Kock Nowak, Sibetz I you have matlab there is an step step example to calibrate SABR model. Since it uses the financial toolbox of matlab for a few functions I dont think you can replicate it in any other language. There must be C++ code available ...

4

Quick summary: Your model should still be well specified, as long as: 1) You do the analysis on a heavily traded asset, e.g. IBM on NYSE, and 2) You use heteroskedasticity-consistent standard errors in your estimation framework, e.g. White's standard errors. I'm going to start the long answer by re-stating the question to make sure I've got it right. Let ...

3

You could read it like this: The typical change in equity value is equal to the typical change in asset value, adjusted for the probability of the assets surviving. Note that the formula is not specific to Merton models, it's also true for regular options and their underlyings. It's just that volatility of option prices isn't typically a concern in ...

3

Well, the main intuition of the Merton model is that a company's equity can be treated as a call option on its assets, thus allowing for the application of Black-Scholes option pricing methods. Let's consider a company that has assets $A_{t}$ financed by equity $E_{t}$ and a zero-coupon debt $B_{t}$ with face value K, and maturity T. At time of maturity T, ...

3

For the univariate case, consider X which is the log prices of some stock. First, fit X with an AR(p) model and collect the residuals. Next, fit a Garch(p,q) model and collect the conditional standard deviations. Scale the initial residuals by the conditional standard deviations to produce a new series that has mean of 0 and variance 1. For the sake of ...

3

About the integration problem: Your integrand is highly oscillatory, and the adaptive quadrature of Matlab doesn't handle such integrands very well. In general, I would recommend Mathematica when Matlab's standard procedures don't perform well. In this case, a Levin-type method would perform much better. The reason that quadv produces NaN values is because ...

3

There is a qualitative shift in the shape of the density. When V is small it is monotone decaying. When V is large it looks more like a Gaussian. Another reason he uses two schemes is that he wants match two moments of the density. When V is small, the moment matching equations for the quadratic Gaussian are unsolvable. When V is large they are unsolvable ...

3

Even though it's a straightforward extension, it took me a while (a year? yikes!); but now you can easily incorporate Bayesian ar(1) (or more generally, Bayesian regression) in joint estimation by using designmatrix = "ar(1)" as an argument to svsample. It's not well documented yet (except in the help files), but I nevertheless hope easy to use. From the ...

3

Well if you think that this model represents reality more accurately than the Black-Scholes assumptions. A lot of people do indeed think so. But I wouldn't say you're "tweaking" Black-Scholes... you're just assuming another model altogether and you will use risk-neutral pricing to compute the fair value of the option at time $t$, just like BS. Frankly, I'm ...

3

1) Gatheral expresses everything in forward terms: forward value of the spot and of the call. Consider an asset $A$. You need to hold $A$ at time $T$ but since you don't need it now you don't want to buy it now. Instead you enter a forward contract with someone that says that at time $T$ you will pay the amount $K$ and get the asset in exchange. What ...

3

I am not sure if I understood your question correctly but I will try to answer it anyway. If you have a standard normal random vector $z \sim N(\mathbb{0},I_n)$ (where $z,0 \in \mathbb{R}^{n\times1}$ and $I_n \in \mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$ is the identity matrix) and you want to transform it into a multivariate normal $x \sim N(\mu,\Sigma)$ you do it the ...

3

I think you're looking for multivariate GARCH models of which this is an overview paper. Multivariate GARCH models have one big drawback: they are pretty hard to estimate due to the number of correlations. This paper by Caporin and McAleer might be of interest in that regard.

3

Not sure your question is about having a process for covariance or to have multivariate GARCH. The standard viewpoint on a stochastic volatility for covariance is to use a Whishart process. See for instance Philipov, A. and M. E. Glickman (2006, July) Multivariate stochastic volatility via wishart processes. Journal of Business & Economic Statistics 24 ...

3

The local vol model has exactly enough freedom to match the individual densities $X_t.$ There is no additional freedom in the local vol model to match even a joint density for a pair of times $(X_t,X_s).$ When you ask about the joint density across the continuum of times $t \in [0,T]$ it is pretty easy to show that any local vol model differs from any ...

2

Unless it is due to random chance, there seems to be a bias in your estimation method for $\kappa$, and this bias appears to depend on the size of the sample. This may be revealing a deeper underlying problem with your technique that will ultimately make it clearer what the tradeoff is between accuracy and sample size. I do not believe it should be the ...

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