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6

To recover the Black-Scholes pricing equation, you should first express the standard normal cdf in terms of its characteristic function analogous to the Heston solution: $$ N(x) = \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^{\infty} Re [\frac{e^{-i\phi x} f(\phi)}{i\phi}] d\phi $$ where $f(\phi)$ is the characteristic function of the standard normal distribution: $$ ...


3

About the integration problem: Your integrand is highly oscillatory, and the adaptive quadrature of Matlab doesn't handle such integrands very well. In general, I would recommend Mathematica when Matlab's standard procedures don't perform well. In this case, a Levin-type method would perform much better. The reason that quadv produces NaN values is because ...


3

The model is similar to the Barndorff-Nielsen - Shephard model. But this model is much more general. On the other hand in this paper by Heston it is exactly your form that is used. Already Scott in 1987 considered a model of your form (see this) Finally in this thesis you find the names Hull-White model (of course there is the interest rate model too) and ...


3

You could read it like this: The typical change in equity value is equal to the typical change in asset value, adjusted for the probability of the assets surviving. Note that the formula is not specific to Merton models, it's also true for regular options and their underlyings. It's just that volatility of option prices isn't typically a concern in ...


3

Well, the main intuition of the Merton model is that a company's equity can be treated as a call option on its assets, thus allowing for the application of Black-Scholes option pricing methods. Let's consider a company that has assets $A_{t}$ financed by equity $E_{t}$ and a zero-coupon debt $B_{t}$ with face value K, and maturity T. At time of maturity T, ...


2

The equation stated in the question is not at the core of Merton's credit model, (Not saying you claimed it is) but is a simple device in helping to solve the system of linear equations. The equation given simply establishes a relationship between the volatility of equity and the volatility of the assets and it follows from the application of Black Scholes ...


2

Let $dS_t = \mu_tS_tdt + \sigma_tS_tdW_t$ be the underlying GBM (Geometric Brownian Motion)-like dynamics as in the question. Let $B_t$ a Brownian motion such that $d[B,W]_t = \rho dt$, $\rho\in[-1,1].$ CIR (Cox-Ingersoll-Ross) for $\sigma_t^2$ (when combined with GBM-like underlying dynamics, it is the popular Heston SV model) $$d\sigma_t^2 = ...


1

I would suggest that you use a more 'modern' method to recover option prices from characteristic functions. The approach of this papers (for practical calculations of option prices) is somewhat outdated. The backbone of affine models (such as SVJJ) is the characteristic function $\psi(u)$ of the log-price distribution, which is known in closed form. The ...


1

GBM is defined as $$ S_t = S_{t-1}\exp\left( \left(\mu - \frac{\sigma^2}{2} \right)dt + \sigma dW_t\right)$$ So, in your notation, assuming your daily parameters: $$ S_{new} = S_{previous}\cdot\exp\left( \left({drift} - \frac{{volatility}^2}{2} \right)days + volatility \,\sqrt{days}\,N(0,1)\right)$$ So your formula was incorrect. The youtube you quote is ...


1

To calibrate BS you compute volatility $\sigma$, to calibrate SABR you compute implied $\alpha$, the volvol and $\beta$, the skewness. These parameters does not play the same role. So you can't really use the parameters of one models to calibrate another. But you can build equivalent parmaters, i.e. compute an equivalent vol under SABR to use BS pricing ...


1

I think a sketch of the proof would look like this Let's say you start from $$ dS_t = S_t \odot (\mu_t dt + \sigma_t dW_t) $$ where $S$ is an vector valued process of your $n$ risky assets prices, $W$ a standard $k$-dimensionnal brownian motion under the historic probability, $\sigma_t$ an $n \times k$ matrix valued process and $\odot$ is the Hadamard ...



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