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Intuitive, no math explanation: Imagine two call options, option A expiring tomorrow and option B expiring in two months. Both of the options are way out of the money and have the same strike price. Due to some event the implied volatility of the stock spikes. Let's assume stock price stays the same. Does the chances of option A expiring in the money ...


Simply put, no. Vega depends on a variety of factors (including the level/price of the underlying asset). However, vomma/volga/vega convexity (whatever you want to call dVega/dIV) is always positive. So as IV increases, the vega of an option increases - I think this might have been what you were getting at. It's important to understand that IV is an input ...


IV is one of the inputs for your option pricing model, vega measures the actual impact (e.g. in Dollars, Euros...) of any change in IV. Intuitively IV is the price of the option while vega is the sensitivity to IV. Bottom line: There is a clear distinction!

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