# Tag Info

7

Using months of proprietary data that labels participants by their participant ID, it has been found that during periods of significant volatility, the composition of HFT participants in the book remains mostly constant as a fraction of the total BBO composition. What really changes, it was found, was that the fraction of low-frequency traders aggressing on ...

1

By design, market makers do not exacerbate volatility because their trades are, as a whole, net passive.

1

I am not sure what the purpose of your volatility calculation is. So, frankly, the question does not make 100% sense to me. However, countries do not engage in trade with just one other country but with many, so from an International Trade Theory point of view looking at a single bi-lateral rate (even an important one like SLOVAKIA/EUR) is not enough. ...

1

The volatility goes to 0 once the crown is pegged to the Euro. The value of an exchange rate between Currency1 and Currency2 the the ratio of the value of Currency1/Currency2. The realized volatility of a currency pair is the usually measured as some trailing average of the daily log-changes in this ratio. After the conversion was made the crown at a ...

1

I will just answer your first question as I do not know the details of SSVI. Total variance is more intrinsic than volatility. The BS formula can be rewritten in terms of 3 parameters: the log-strike (log-moneyness would be more accurate) $k$, the total variance $w$ and the discount factor. Volatility never appears without a $\sqrt{T}$. It is just there ...

2

The best solution is to matrix-price these bonds first. For each bond, either find a comparable bond or use your own judgment to determine the appropriate spread to a benchmark curve (e.g., OAS to LIBOR), then use the daily LIBOR curve and the corresponding OAS to obtain the daily prices.

2

It is all a matter of frequency. For instance if you want to get annual realized volatility you multiply your last expression by $\sqrt{(N*251)}$ or the second to last expression by $\sqrt{(251)}$. In other words, your last expression is the 5-min realized volatility whereas the second to last expression is the daily realized volatility.

7

Upon close reading, this appears to be 3 (interesting) questions, not one. I'm not sure if the mods have the tools needed to split it up, so I'm just going to write down the three questions as I see them and then deal with them one by one. Note, it is simpler for me to talk about variance instead of volatility. This has no material impact on the answer. ...

0

There are a few points to address here. First, I'll start with the theoretical stuff. Realised variance is usually used to refer to a sum of squared intraday returns over a span no longer than a day, i.e. $\sum_i^n r_{t,i}^2$, where $i = 1, ..., n$ denotes the $n$ intraday returns from day $t$. This is important, because all the statistical properties that ...

4

Quick summary: Your model should still be well specified, as long as: 1) You do the analysis on a heavily traded asset, e.g. IBM on NYSE, and 2) You use heteroskedasticity-consistent standard errors in your estimation framework, e.g. White's standard errors. I'm going to start the long answer by re-stating the question to make sure I've got it right. Let ...

5

For How VIX works you can read this wonderful blog : http://onlyvix.blogspot.com/2011/09/intuitive-understanding-of-vix-formula.html It provide wonderful non mathematical explanation of the how vix is actually computed. Now comes to your last answer why vix is inversely related to market movement ? In simple words, if market is more volatile then ...

0

I'll address things in order as I encountered them in the question. First, your formula for RV only makes sense if $X_{t_i}$ is the log-price, not log-return. If this was just a mistype it would probably be best if you edited the question to correct it. If it is not a mistype, let me know, because then you have bigger problems... Answer 0: I have no idea ...

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