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Feb
3
comment how to derive yield curve from interest rate swap?
@armensg90 Since the 2-year bond is at par, the fixed coupon payments over the 2 years match the payments in the fixed leg of the 2-year swap exactly. Hence the par rate of the bond is the same as the par swap rate.
Dec
21
comment Why the difference between SPY and ^GSPC?
Not to mention that there is a small negative drift on SPY because of management costs.
Oct
29
comment Why does it take so many lines of code to price even the simplest of options with QuantLib
I tried to improve OP's code quality.
Oct
18
comment Switching from C++ to R - limitations/applications
This is a quant finance site. People often have to answer questions by applying statistical tests. For example, to find out if a time series is stationary, one applies the Dickey-Fuller test [ en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dickey%E2%80%93Fuller_test ]. We use other tests to determine if a random variable is gaussian, or if two time series are cointegrated, etc. These tests are readily available in R, Python, and MATLAB, but are not in C++ or Java.
Mar
25
comment What is the fair price of this option?
qtf: let me think about your no-arb argument. I don't get why you wrote that the "Black-Scholes model with zero rates and positive volatility gives C=1/H". This is an American binary call option, not a European one.
Mar
25
comment What is the fair price of this option?
qtf: the OP wanted to find out the price of the option while using model-free arguments.
Mar
25
comment What is the fair price of this option?
I don't think your answer $C \le 1/H$ is correct. As many pointed out, the stock will hit the level $H$ when given enough time.
Dec
9
comment Why is this stochastic integral a martingale?
emcor: because of the independent increments property of $W_t$. At time $u$, $S_u$ is known but $dW^*_u \equiv W^*_{u+du}-W^*_u$ is not.
Dec
9
comment Why is this stochastic integral a martingale?
Gordon: correct. I added a section to address the issue.
Dec
9
comment Why is this stochastic integral a martingale?
While the OP answered his/her own question, I wonder if he/she just copied the answer from a book. In the OP's answer, it says that it "is possible to show" the lemma that $\int_0^t f(s) dW(s)$ is a martingale, but it "is omitted here to keep things short". What? That's exactly what we are trying to prove!
Dec
9
comment Why is this stochastic integral a martingale?
StudentT: exactly! It works out only because $dW_u$ is defined as a forward difference in the Ito integral.
Dec
8
comment Why is this stochastic integral a martingale?
Wow my answer is at -1 vote. Folks please go take a Stochastic Calculus class, as this result is fairly basic. Look at slide #12 at idsc.ethz.ch/Courses/stochasticsystems/SDE.pdf; "The expectation of stochastic integrals is zero. This is what we would expect anyway."
Dec
8
comment Why is this stochastic integral a martingale?
fushsialatitude: good question. To move the expectation operator inside the integration, we need to satisfy Fubini's theorem. If $S(u)$ is "well-behavior", the theorem should be satisfied.
Jul
19
comment How to compute $\mathbb{E} \left[ (W_s + W_t - 2W_0)^2 \right]$?
Richard: thanks for pointing out the typo. If $X \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)$, $\mathbb{E}\left[e^X\right] = e^{\mu + \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2}$.
Jun
7
comment Modelling driftless stock price with geometric Brownian motion
user7056: you should complain to stack exchange as they won't let me edit my comments!
Jun
2
comment Modelling driftless stock price with geometric Brownian motion
The superscript $Q$ indicates that the expectation is taken over the risk-neutral probability measure [en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk-neutral_measure]. To compute $\mathbb{E}^Q\left[ e^{\sigma W_t} \right]$, note that, for $X \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)$, $\mathbb{E}\left[ e^X\right] = e^{\mu+\sigma^2/2}.$
Apr
21
comment How to calculate the expected value of a function of a standard brownian motion (Wiener process)
If the OP is not comfortable with using $\cos x = \Re \{ e^{i x} \} $, let $\cos x = \frac{e^{i x} + e^{-i x}}{2}$ and proceed from there.
Jan
27
comment Time-zero price of two specific contingent claims
@user8: i see, but then I think your answer is wrong, since $\frac{V_0}{B_0} = \mathbb{E}^Q \left[ \frac{V_T}{B_T} \middle\vert \mathcal{F}_0\right] = \mathbb{E}^Q \left[ \frac{\int_0^T S_u \; du}{B_T} \middle\vert \mathcal{F}_0\right]$. In other words, the factor $e^{r u}$ appears in the integrand; it's not canceled out by $B_T = e^{r T}$.
Jan
27
comment Time-zero price of two specific contingent claims
@user8: Although your answer agrees with mine if we take the limit of $r \rightarrow 0$ in my expression, why are you assuming that $r=0$?
Jan
26
comment Time-zero price of two specific contingent claims
I think your expression for $S_t =S_0 e^{\sigma W^Q_t-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2t}$ is wrong. Under the risk-neutral measure $Q$, $S_t= S_0 e^{(r-\sigma^2/2)t + \sigma W_t}$.