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Jul 5, 2014 at 2:19 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackQuant/status/485246639465332737
S Jun 30, 2014 at 18:57 history suggested emcor CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 30, 2014 at 18:46 answer added Hans timeline score: 0
Jun 30, 2014 at 16:52 answer added emcor timeline score: 2
Jun 30, 2014 at 16:20 review Suggested edits
S Jun 30, 2014 at 18:57
Jun 30, 2014 at 16:15 comment added emcor You may note $(y-K)^+=0$ when $y\leq K$, so the second integration goes only from $K$ to $\infty$.
Jun 30, 2014 at 15:34 comment added SRKX Could you clarify the application to Quant Finance? Pure math questions belong to Mathematics.
Jun 30, 2014 at 15:26 comment added emcor An expression with only 1 integral would be $E(Z=X(Y-K)^+) = \int_0^\infty \left( 1 - F_Z(x) \right) \,\mathrm{d}x$
Jun 30, 2014 at 15:19 history asked Math Girl CC BY-SA 3.0