Timeline for risk-neutral valuation implies no arbitrage?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 1, 2014 at 9:22 | comment | added | Ulysses | That's kinda a strange question: given only the formula for the call price, there can be multitude of other assets that allow for arbitrage. | |
| Nov 30, 2014 at 21:14 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackQuant/status/539165629119733763 | ||
| Nov 29, 2014 at 22:07 | history | edited | Richard | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 2 characters in body
|
| Nov 29, 2014 at 21:50 | answer | added | Keith A. Lewis | timeline score: 0 | |
| Nov 29, 2014 at 21:45 | history | edited | Richard | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 173 characters in body
|
| Nov 29, 2014 at 21:39 | history | edited | Richard | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 173 characters in body
|
| Nov 29, 2014 at 21:38 | answer | added | Mark Joshi | timeline score: 4 | |
| Nov 29, 2014 at 21:33 | history | edited | Richard | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 173 characters in body
|
| Nov 29, 2014 at 21:32 | answer | added | user151781 | timeline score: -3 | |
| Nov 29, 2014 at 20:44 | answer | added | emcor | timeline score: 0 | |
| Nov 29, 2014 at 19:56 | history | asked | Richard | CC BY-SA 3.0 |