Timeline for Best simplified way to model volatility in returns of an investment in a risky fixed income asset
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
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Jan 2, 2015 at 17:45 | history | edited | Paul | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 31, 2014 at 15:43 | answer | added | Kyle Balkissoon | timeline score: 2 | |
Dec 31, 2014 at 3:25 | comment | added | Paul | YL is the loss in gross yield over a large set of loans in which some have defaulted and some have not. So the gross yield of 100 loans might have been 9% without defaults, but in reality it is 7% because some of them defaulted. So can we assume the loss rate of 2% is the mean of some distribution of yield losses, from which we could extract a variance? I suppose if you assume defaults are independent, you could write that distribution as a product of distributions for each loan, and I suppose each of those could be written as the joint distribution P(default)*P(loss|default). does that help? | |
Dec 28, 2014 at 20:32 | history | edited | vonjd | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 28, 2014 at 10:28 | comment | added | Kyle Balkissoon | I don't understand the question: Are you trying to model the volatility of Loss given DEFAULT? the volatility of the Total Return of the Bond? Isn't YL the loss in yield conditional in defaults. From a pricing perspective your actual yield implies that all investments are worse than the default free yield as if I understand it correctly Ydf is the risk free? | |
Dec 27, 2014 at 22:21 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackQuant/status/548966900592828416 | ||
Dec 27, 2014 at 14:58 | history | edited | Bob Jansen♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 26, 2014 at 21:04 | history | edited | Paul | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 25, 2014 at 8:29 | history | edited | olaker | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
typo in the title
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Dec 25, 2014 at 4:15 | review | First posts | |||
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Dec 25, 2014 at 4:12 | history | asked | Paul | CC BY-SA 3.0 |