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Nov 4, 2015 at 19:22 vote accept MMagique
Nov 4, 2015 at 16:46 answer added LazyCat timeline score: 0
Nov 4, 2015 at 12:01 history tweeted twitter.com/StackQuant/status/661875818352742400
Nov 4, 2015 at 11:54 answer added Escachator timeline score: 3
Nov 3, 2015 at 23:17 comment added MMagique I share the puzzlement of @LazyCat. Assuming no splits, why would the VXX not be equal to the weighted average of month 1 and month 2 prices (adjusting the daily weight such that the weighted average time remaining until maturity stays constant at 30)?
Nov 3, 2015 at 22:59 answer added SpzToid timeline score: -2
Nov 3, 2015 at 14:56 comment added LazyCat @AlexC: what do you mean by "price LEVEL"? If that's just the price of the instrument, then why is it not related to futures price (properly normalized) at all?
Nov 2, 2015 at 23:34 comment added Alex C The daily price change in the VXX has something to do with the daily price changes in the two futures contracts. But the price LEVEL of VXX is not related to the futures price levels at all. In any case, the VXX price level is adjusted from time to time through a stock split/reverse split.
Nov 2, 2015 at 17:34 history edited MMagique CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 2, 2015 at 17:07 review First posts
Nov 2, 2015 at 17:19
Nov 2, 2015 at 17:06 history asked MMagique CC BY-SA 3.0