Can any one tell me, why futures contract has no value
?
We know that the value of future(Maybe I confuse the concept of future value
and future price
):
$$\textrm{Fut}(t,T) = \widetilde{E}[S(T)|\mathcal{F}_t]$$
How can it be zero? We only have the discounted value of cash flow is zero.
FurthermoreAnd why in the forward contract, I saw$F$ is not zero in the discussion below$\Pi = V(S,t) - \delta S - \delta_1 Z.$ But just set $V = 0$ to obtain the forward price, but it seems not useful for my problemis unreasonable. Why are futures valueless?