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Oct 18, 2012 at 0:18 comment added justin-- @John Dividend is the same across the board, but of course "dividend/strike price" is higher for lower strike price.
Oct 17, 2012 at 4:20 comment added John @justin I see what you're saying, but I'm not sure that's what I meant. I believe (been a while) I was arguing that the implied dividend yield in the market, working backwards, would be larger for the smaller strike price. Again, similar to your much better thought out answer where you provide the formula. Some cursory double-checking of his graph and the formula you provide suggests that the implied dividend would be higher for the lower stock price strikes.
Oct 17, 2012 at 0:10 comment added justin-- @John it still doesn't matter whether or not the dividend yield is higher for a lower stock price.
Oct 16, 2012 at 21:26 comment added John @Justin I didn't say they had anything to do with the strike price. I said I thought it had to do with incorporating dividends into put-call parity, as even your answer addresses.
Oct 16, 2012 at 18:26 comment added justin-- @John Dividends have nothing to do with strike price.
Oct 16, 2012 at 18:17 answer added justin-- timeline score: 7
Oct 13, 2012 at 18:01 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackQuant/status/257179370475622400
Oct 9, 2012 at 4:07 answer added Larry Burkas timeline score: 1
Oct 5, 2012 at 23:48 vote accept Victor
Oct 5, 2012 at 16:25 answer added Strange timeline score: 10
Oct 5, 2012 at 15:59 answer added SRKX timeline score: 1
Oct 5, 2012 at 15:37 comment added John I think it has to do with incorporating dividends into put-call parity. Note that $e^{-rt}$ is positive here, which would imply negative interest rates. The rates are more negative for a lower price. Not 100%, but it is like the dividend yield is higher for a lower stock price.
Oct 5, 2012 at 15:03 history asked Victor CC BY-SA 3.0