Question is basically in the title. I have found several sourcessources stating that Ri = sqrt(t/n)$R_i = \sqrt{\frac{t}{n}}$, but I couldn't find the intuition behind taking the square root. And it seems to be crucial since E(Ri^2)= t/n$\operatorname{E}\left[{R_i^2}\right]= \frac{t}{n}$ and from there derive the variance of the Brownian motion as being t$t$.
skoestlmeier
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