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Jul 25, 2019 at 19:25 history closed Daneel Olivaw
skoestlmeier
amdopt
byouness
Attack68
Duplicate of Why discounted derivative price is a martingale?
Jul 17, 2019 at 11:50 vote accept econmajorr
Jul 16, 2019 at 10:35 review Close votes
Jul 25, 2019 at 19:25
S Jul 16, 2019 at 9:57 history suggested Kevin CC BY-SA 4.0
Corrected some typos
Jul 16, 2019 at 5:50 review Suggested edits
S Jul 16, 2019 at 9:57
Jul 15, 2019 at 18:33 answer added Kevin timeline score: 4
Jul 15, 2019 at 7:53 comment added byouness What I mean is that when saying that some process is a martingale, you need to specify under which measure. For example, the discounted option price is a martingale under the risk-neutral measure, but it is not a martingale under other measures. When you change the measure the drift changes.
Jul 15, 2019 at 0:04 comment added dm63 $X_t/B_t$ is the non discounted option price. It’s a martingale in the measure of the zero coupon bond maturing at the expiration date.
Jul 14, 2019 at 21:35 comment added econmajorr I am not sure what you mean. This under Bachelier model. So using the dynamics of $f_t$: $df_t$ and then compute $dC_t$ we should end up getting a process without a drift.. This is what I understand when I read these notes.
Jul 14, 2019 at 21:09 comment added byouness The question here is, martingale under which measure?
Jul 14, 2019 at 19:57 history asked econmajorr CC BY-SA 4.0