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Oct 30, 2019 at 20:06 vote accept Aqqqq
Oct 29, 2019 at 9:52 comment added Dimitri Vulis (Separate question, really) Lots of possible motivations. For example, the bond buyer might hope that a central bank (as economic stimulus) would buy the bond before its maturity at an even higher price .
Oct 28, 2019 at 15:46 comment added Aqqqq If P>1, why would someone buy such a bond if they essentially paid more for getting less at a later point in time?
Oct 27, 2019 at 22:57 comment added Dimitri Vulis The bond investor pays P for the bond and later receives 1 from the bond issuer.
Oct 27, 2019 at 22:03 comment added Aqqqq "You sound like you wanted to assume the bond price to always be 1" because I thought that principal is paid back at the end of period 1, since it is a one-period bond. If the bond issuers do not pay the principal back at the end of period 1, when will they pay the principal back?
Oct 27, 2019 at 17:45 comment added Dimitri Vulis Yes, the principal (notional, face value) is promised to be repaid in a predictable way (if the bond issuers keep their promise to pay back). We can assume the repayment to be \$1 for convenience. You might then plan, "I need \$X at the end of the period, so I will spend \$P on bonds". The price \$P that you pay to buy the bond in the market is generallly not exactly the same amount that is promised to be repaid (but is usually close, like 99.1%). You sound like you wanted to assume the bond price to always be 1, which isn't right.
Oct 27, 2019 at 15:33 comment added Aqqqq But it is a one-period bond. Wouldn't the principal also be paid back? Also I think it makes a general statement here instead of referring to a specific bond, so why the payoff has to be one unit of currency?
Oct 27, 2019 at 12:56 history edited Dimitri Vulis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 27, 2019 at 12:47 history answered Dimitri Vulis CC BY-SA 4.0